A study of how modern Bibles use this statement by Jesus seeing they remove the divinity of Jesus and its expression in Mark 16:9-21
Mar_13:6 For many shall come in my name, saying, I am Christ; and shall deceive many.
Most modern bibles have 'I am he' removing the fact Jesus was Christ just before He told what was to come in the last days as if He did not have the authority to be able to say this.
Why? So Christians would not believe what Jesus said was true and know what was going to happen in the end times.
Mar_16:17 And these signs shall follow them that believe; In my name shall they cast out devils; they shall speak with new tongues;
This passage was removed because they did not believe Christ, at that time had the authority to delegate these things.
Luk_21:8 And he said, Take heed that ye be not deceived: for many shall come in my name, saying, I am Christ; and the time draweth near: go ye not therefore after them.
They change the word 'Christ' to impersonal 'he' or 'I am'. Also see note on Mar 13:6
Not believeing Jesus was God before He died the translators of modern versions removed mark 16:9-21 where Jesus delegated His authority over Satan to us. The Lord said to look at the passages that has 'In My Name' in and see how these were treated.
They imply Jesus was a normal human like ay other founder of a religion in whose 'name' the followers went and converted people. SO t hey did not do anything much to most of these passages. However they did alter His Title in the passage about what would happen in the last days. In otherwords so the prophecy of Jesus could not be believed as from God but from a normal person.
So why did they want to hide from Christians what was going to happen in the last days? Was it to hide the coming of Antichrist? or so people would not know the timing of these events and the return of Jesus?